General
Class

Study
Guide

2015-2019

Pass
the General Class Exam for Amateur Radio

Kent
Hertz

DISCLAIMER AND/OR LEGAL NOTICES:

Care
has been taken to confirm the accuracy of the information presented. However,
the author and publisher are not responsible for errors or omissions or for any
consequences from application of the information in this book and make no
warranty, expressed or implied, with respect to the currency, completeness, or
accuracy of the contents of the publication.

©
2016, Kent Hertz

All
Rights Reserved

Table of Contents

Exam Questions & Answers

About the Author

Books by Kent Hertz

Exam Questions & Answers

2015-2019
General Class – FCC Element 3 Question Pool:

Effective
July 1, 2015

SUBELEMENT G1 - COMMISSION'S
RULES [5 Exam Questions - 5 Groups]

G1A - General Class control
operator frequency privileges; primary and secondary allocations

G1A01 (C) [97.301(d)]

On which of the following bands is a General Class license
holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

C. 160,
60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters

---------------------

G1A02 (B) [97.305]

On which of the following bands is phone operation
prohibited?

B. 30
meters

---------------------

G1A03 (B) [97.305]

On which of the following bands is image transmission
prohibited?

B. 30 meters

---------------------

G1A04 (D) [97.303 (h)]

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to
communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

D. 60 meters

---------------------

G1A05 (A) [97.301(d)]

Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class
portion of the 40-meter band?

A. 7.250 MHz

---------------------

G1A06 (C) [97.301(d)]

Which of the following frequencies is within the General
Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

C. 3900 kHz

---------------------

G1A07 (C) [97.301(d)]

Which of the following frequencies is within the General
Class portion of the 20-meter phone band?

C. 14305 kHz

---------------------

G1A08 (C) [97.301(d)]

Which of the following frequencies is within the General
Class portion of the 80-meter band?

C. 3560 kHz

---------------------

G1A09 (C) [97.301(d)]

Which of the following frequencies is within the General
Class portion of the 15-meter band?

C. 21300 kHz

---------------------

G1A10 (D) [97.301(d)]

Which of the following frequencies is available to a
control operator holding a General Class license?

A. 28.020 MHz

B. 28.350 MHz

C. 28.550 MHz

D. All of these choices are
correct

---------------------

G1A11 (B) [97.301]

When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the
entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment
is generally available to them?

B. The upper frequency end

---------------------

G1A12 (C) [97.303]

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate
the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

C. Amateur stations are
allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to
primary users

---------------------

G1A13 (D) [97.303(h)(2)(j)]

What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either
the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes
with your contact?

D. Move to a clear frequency
or stop transmitting

---------------------

G1A14 (B) [97.301(d)]

In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz
band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC issued General Class
license?

B. Region 2

---------------------

G1B - Antenna structure
limitations; good engineering and good amateur practice; beacon operation;
prohibited transmissions; retransmitting radio signals

G1B01 (C) [97.15(a)]

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna
structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and
registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

C. 200 feet

---------------------

G1B02 (D) [97.203(b)]

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations
comply?

D. There must be no more than
one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location

---------------------

G1B03 (A) [97.3(a)(9)]

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as
identified in the FCC rules?

A. Observation of propagation
and reception

---------------------

G1B04 (A) [97.113(b)]

Which of the following must be true before amateur stations
may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

A. The communications must
directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property
and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before
or at the time of the event

---------------------

G1B05 (D) [97.113(c)]

When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

D. When it is an incidental
part of a manned space craft retransmission

---------------------

G1B06 (B) [97.113(a)(4) and 97.207(f)]

When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret
codes?

B. To control a space station

---------------------

G1B07 (B) [97.113(a)(4)]

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or
procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

B. They may be used if they do
not obscure the meaning of a message

---------------------

G1B08 (D) [97.101(a)]

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do
to comply with good amateur practice?

A.   Insure
that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges

B.   Follow
generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community

C.   Monitor
the frequency before transmitting

D.   All of
these choices are correct

---------------------

G1B09 (A) [97.113(a)(3)]

When may an amateur station transmit communications in
which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?

A. When other amateurs are
being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and
such activity is not done on a regular basis

---------------------

G1B10 (C) [97.203(c)]

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

C. 100 watts PEP output

---------------------

G1B11 (C) [97.101(a)]

How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated
in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

C. In conformance with good
engineering and good amateur practice

---------------------

G1B12 (A) [97.101(a)]

Who or what determines "good engineering and good
amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all
respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

A. The FCC

---------------------

G1C - Transmitter power
regulations; data emission standards

G1C01 (A) [97.313(c)(1)]

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station
may use on 10.140 MHz?

A. 200 watts PEP output

---------------------

G1C02 (C) [97.313(a),(b)]

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station
may use on the 12-meter band?

C. 1500 watts PEP output

---------------------

G1C03 (A) [97.303(h)(1)]

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for
Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

A. 2.8 kHz

---------------------

G1C04 (A) [97.313(a)]

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter
power on every amateur band?

A. Only the minimum power
necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used

---------------------

G1C05 (C) [97.313(c)(2)]

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power
on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

C. 1500 watts PEP output

---------------------

G1C06 (D) [97.313]

Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power
on the 1.8 MHz band?

D. 1500 watts PEP output

---------------------

G1C07 (D) [97.305(c), 97.307(f)(3)]

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data
emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

D. 300 baud

---------------------

G1C08 (D) [97.307(f)(3)]

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data
emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

D. 300 baud

---------------------

G1C09 (A) [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(5)]

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data
emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?

A. 56 kilobaud

---------------------

G1C10 (C) [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(4)]

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data
emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?

C. 1200 baud

---------------------

G1C11 (B) [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(5)]

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data
emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?

B. 19.6 kilobaud

---------------------

G1D - Volunteer Examiners and
Volunteer Examiner Coordinators; temporary identification

G1D01 (A) [97.501, 97.505(a)]

Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an
expired amateur radio license?

A. Any person who can
demonstrate that they once held an FCC issued General, Advanced, or Amateur
Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

---------------------

G1D02 (C) [97.509(b)(3)(i)]

What license examinations may you administer when you are
an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

C. Technician only

---------------------

G1D03 (C) [97.9(b)]

On which of the following band segments may you operate if
you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class
privileges?

C. On any General or
Technician Class band segment

---------------------

G1D04 (A) [97.509(3)(i)(c)]

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a
Technician Class license examination?

A. At least three General
Class or higher VEs must observe the examination

---------------------

G1D05 (D) [97.509(b)(3)(i)]

Which of the following must a person have before they can
be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?

D. An FCC General Class or
higher license and VEC accreditation

---------------------

G1D06 (A) [97.119(f)(2)]

When must you add the special identifier "AG"
after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for
General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade
on its website?

A. Whenever you operate using
General Class frequency privileges

---------------------

G1D07 (C) [97.509(b)(1)]

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

C. A Volunteer Examiner
Coordinator

---------------------

G1D08 (B) [97.509(b)(3)]

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S.
citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

B. The person must hold an FCC
granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above

---------------------

G1D09 (C) [97.9(b)]

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of
Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

C. 365 days

---------------------

G1D10 (B) [97.509(b)(2)]

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an
accredited Volunteer Examiner?

B. 18 years

---------------------

G1D11 (D)

If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license
of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new
license?

D. The applicant must pass the
current element 2 exam

---------------------

G1E – Control categories; repeater
regulations; harmful interference; third party rules; ITU regions;
automatically controlled digital station

G1E01 (A) [97.115(b)(2)]

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from
participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

A. The third party’s amateur
license has been revoked and not reinstated

---------------------

G1E02 (D) [97.205(b)]

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal
from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

D. Only if the 10-meter
repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license

---------------------

G1E03 (A) [97.221]

What is required to conduct communications with a digital
station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

A. The station initiating the
contact must be under local or remote control

---------------------

G1E04 (D) [97.13(b), 97.303, 97.311(b)]

Which of the following conditions require a licensed
Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to
other users or facilities?

A. When operating within one
mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

B. When using a band where the
Amateur Service is secondary

C. When a station is
transmitting spread spectrum emissions

D. All of these choices are
correct

---------------------

G1E05 (C) [97.115(a)(2),97.117]

What types of messages for a third party in another country
may be transmitted by an amateur station?

C. Only messages relating to
Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to
emergencies or disaster relief

---------------------

G1E06 (A) [97.205(c)]

Which of the following applies in the event of interference
between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

A. The licensee of the
uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference

---------------------

G1E07 (C) [97.115(a)(2)]

With which foreign countries is third party traffic
prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster
relief communications?

C. Every foreign country,
unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country

---------------------

G1E08 (B) [97.115(a)(b)]

Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed
person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with
an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?

B. The foreign amateur station
must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement

---------------------

G1E09 (C) [97.119(b)(2)]

What language must be used when identifying your station if
you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone
emission?

C. English only

---------------------

G1E11 (C) [97.221]

Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended
digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?

C. Automatically controlled
digital station

---------------------

G1E12 (A) [97.115]

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via
digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes
of communication?

A. Under no circumstances

---------------------

G1E13 (D) [97.221, 97.305]

On what bands may automatically controlled stations
transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically
controlled digital stations?

D. Anywhere in the 1.25-meter
or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through
2-meter bands

---------------------

SUBELEMENT G2 - OPERATING
PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions - 5 Groups]

G2A - Phone operating
procedures; USB/LSB conventions; procedural signals; breaking into a contact;
VOX operation

G2A01 (A)

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice
communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

A. Upper sideband

---------------------

G2A02 (B)

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for
voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

B. Lower sideband

---------------------

G2A03 (A)

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice
communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

A. Upper sideband

---------------------

G2A04 (A)

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications
on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

A. Upper sideband

---------------------

G2A05 (C)

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on
the HF amateur bands?

C. Single sideband

---------------------

G2A06 (B)

Which of the following is an advantage when using single
sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

B. Less bandwidth used and
greater power efficiency

---------------------

G2A07 (B)

Which of the following statements is true of the single
sideband voice mode?

B. Only one sideband is
transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

---------------------

G2A08 (B)

Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a
contact when using phone?

B. Say your call sign during a
break between transmissions by the other stations

---------------------

G2A09 (D)

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the
160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?

D. Current amateur practice is
to use lower sideband on these frequency bands

---------------------

G2A10 (B)

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX
operation versus PTT operation?

B. It allows "hands
free" operation

---------------------

G2A11 (C)

What does the expression "CQ DX" usually
indicate?

C. The caller is looking for
any station outside their own country

---------------------

G2B - Operating courtesy; band
plans; emergencies, including drills and emergency communications

G2B01 (C)

Which of the following is true concerning access to
frequencies in non-emergency situations?

C. Except during FCC declared
emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies

---------------------

G2B02 (B)

What is the first thing you should do if you are
communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break
in?

B. Acknowledge the station in
distress and determine what assistance may be needed

---------------------

G2B03 (C)

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice
increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should
you do?

C. As a common courtesy, move
your contact to another frequency

---------------------

G2B04 (B)

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum
separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent
frequencies?

B. 150 to 500 Hz

---------------------

G2B05 (B)

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between
SSB signals under normal conditions?

B. Approximately 3 kHz

---------------------

G2B06 (A)

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an
apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

A. Send "QRL?" on
CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in
use, followed by your call sign

---------------------

G2B07 (C)

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice
when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

C. Follow the voluntary band
plan for the operating mode you intend to use

---------------------

G2B08 (A)

What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

A. A portion of the band that
should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous
United States

---------------------

G2B09 (A) [97.407(a)]

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station
transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

A. Only a person holding an
FCC issued amateur operator license

---------------------

G2B10 (D) [97.407(b)]

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of
amateur stations participating in RACES?

D. When the President’s War
Emergency Powers have been invoked

---------------------

G2B11 (A) [97.405]

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

A. Whichever frequency has the
best chance of communicating the distress message

---------------------

G2B12 (C) [97.405(b)]

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its
disposal to assist another station in distress?

C. At any time during an
actual emergency

---------------------

G2C - CW operating procedures
and procedural signals; Q signals and common abbreviations: full break in

G2C01 (D)

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy
(QSK)?

D. Transmitting stations can
receive between code characters and elements

---------------------

G2C02 (A)

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

A. Send slower

---------------------

G2C03 (C)

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN"
at the end of a transmission?

C. Listening only for a
specific station or stations

---------------------

G2C04 (D)

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

D. "Are you busy?",
or "Is this frequency in use?"

---------------------

G2C05 (B)

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse
code?

B. The speed at which the CQ
was sent

---------------------

G2C06 (D)

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW
operation?

D. Matching your transmit
frequency to the frequency of a received signal

---------------------

G2C07 (A)

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added
to the RST report?

A. Chirpy or unstable signal

---------------------

G2C08 (C)

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal
message when using CW?

C. AR

---------------------

G2C09 (C)

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

C. I acknowledge receipt

---------------------

G2C10 (B)

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

B. I am troubled by static

---------------------

G2C11 (D)

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

D. I am ready to receive messages

---------------------

G2D - Amateur Auxiliary;
minimizing interference; HF operations

G2D01 (A)

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

A. Amateur volunteers who are
formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

---------------------

G2D02 (B)

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur
Auxiliary?

B. To encourage
self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators

---------------------

G2D03 (B)

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of
help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

B. Direction finding used to
locate stations violating FCC Rules

---------------------

G2D04 (B)

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection
map?

B. A map that shows true
bearings and distances from a particular location

---------------------

G2D05 (B) [97.111(a)(1)]

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations
in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications
Commission?

B. When the contact is with
amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the
ITU that they object to such communications

---------------------

G2D06 (C)

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a
"long-path" contact with another station?

C. 180 degrees from its
short-path heading

---------------------

G2D07 (A) [97.303(i)]

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when
operating in the 60-meter band?

A. If you are using other than
a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

---------------------

G2D08 (D)

What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?

D. To help with a reply if the
FCC requests information

---------------------

G2D09 (D)

What information is traditionally contained in a station
log?

A. Date and time of contact

B. Band and/or frequency of
the contact

C. Call sign of station
contacted and the signal report given

D. All of these choices are
correct

---------------------

G2D10 (B)

What is QRP operation?

B. Low power transmit
operation

---------------------

G2D11 (C)

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing
interference?

C. A directional antenna

---------------------

G2E - Digital operating:
procedures, procedural signals and common abbreviations

G2E01 (D)

Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via
AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

D. LSB

---------------------

G2E02 (B)

How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine
if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?

B. Put the modem or controller
in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection

---------------------

G2E03 (D)

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering
with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

A. Frequent retries or
timeouts

B. Long pauses in message
transmission

C. Failure to establish a
connection between stations

D. All of these choices are
correct

---------------------

G2E04 (B)

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for
digital transmissions?

B. 14.070 - 14.100 MHz

---------------------

G2E05 (B)

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or
JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

B. USB

---------------------

G2E06 (B)

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions
in the amateur HF bands?

B. 170 Hz

---------------------

G2E07 (A)

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for
digital transmissions?

A. 3570 – 3600 kHz

---------------------

G2E08 (D)

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31
operations commonly found?

D. Below the RTTY segment,
near 14.070 MHz

---------------------

G2E09 (C)

How do you join a contact between two stations using the
PACTOR protocol?

C. Joining an existing contact
is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

---------------------

G2E10 (D)

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a
digital messaging system gateway station?

D. Transmit a connect message
on the station’s published frequency

---------------------

G2E11 (D)

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more
vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?

D. Overmodulation

---------------------

G2E12 (C)

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

C. Frequency is horizontal,
signal strength is intensity, time is vertical

---------------------

G2E13 (A)

Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to
transfer messages?

A. Winlink

---------------------

G2E14 (D)

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other
FSK signal even

though it is apparently tuned in properly?

A. The mark and space
frequencies may be reversed

B. You may have selected the wrong baud rate

C. You may be listening on the wrong sideband

D. All of these choices
are correct

---------------------

SUBELEMENT G3 - RADIO WAVE
PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions - 3 Groups]

G3A - Sunspots and solar
radiation; ionospheric disturbances; propagation forecasting and indices

G3A01 (A)

What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard
to HF propagation?

A.  Higher sunspot
numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher
frequencies

---------------------

G3A02 (B)

What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on
the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

B. It disrupts signals on
lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

---------------------

G3A03 (C)

Approximately how long does it take the increased
ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation
on the Earth?

C. 8 minutes

---------------------

G3A04 (D)

Which of the following are least reliable for long distance
communications during periods of low solar activity?

D. 15 meters, 12 meters and 10
meters

---------------------

G3A05 (D)

What is the solar flux index?

D. A measure of solar
radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength

---------------------

G3A06 (D)

What is a geomagnetic storm?

D. A temporary disturbance in
the Earth's magnetosphere

---------------------

G3A07 (D)

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band
usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

D. At any point in the solar
cycle

---------------------

G3A08 (B)

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have
on radio propagation?

B. Degraded high-latitude HF
propagation

---------------------

G3A09 (C)

What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio
communications?

C. Long-distance communication
in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced

---------------------

G3A10 (C)

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically
in a 28 day cycle?

C. The Sun’s rotation on its
axis

---------------------

G3A11 (D)

Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?

D. 11 years

---------------------

G3A12 (B)

What does the K-index indicate?

B. The short term stability of
the Earth’s magnetic field

---------------------

G3A13 (C)

What does the A-index indicate?

C. The long term stability of
the Earth’s geomagnetic field

---------------------

G3A14 (B)

How are radio communications usually affected by the
charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

B. HF communications are
disturbed

---------------------

G3A15 (D)

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass
ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?

D. 20 to 40 hours

---------------------

G3A16 (A)

What is a possible benefit to radio communications
resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?

A. Auroras that can reflect
VHF signals

---------------------

G3B - Maximum Usable
Frequency; Lowest Usable Frequency; propagation

G3B01 (D)

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your
receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

D. A well-defined echo might
be heard

---------------------

G3B02 (A)

Which of the following is a good indicator of the
possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?

A. Short skip sky-wave
propagation on the 10-meter band

---------------------

G3B03 (A)

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency
for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

A. Select a frequency just
below the MUF

---------------------

G3B04 (A)

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high
enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location
on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

A. Listen for signals from an
international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use

---------------------

G3B05 (A)

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the
MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

A. They are bent back to the
Earth

---------------------

G3B06 (C)

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below
the LUF?

C. They are completely
absorbed by the ionosphere

---------------------

G3B07 (A)

What does LUF stand for?

A. The Lowest Usable Frequency
for communications between two points

---------------------

G3B08 (B)

What does MUF stand for?

B. The Maximum Usable
Frequency for communications between two points

---------------------

G3B09 (C)

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's
surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

C. 2,500 miles

---------------------

G3B10 (B)

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's
surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

B. 1,200 miles

---------------------

G3B11 (A)

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the
MUF?

A. No HF radio frequency will
support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path

---------------------

G3B12 (D)

What factor or factors affect the MUF?

A. Path distance and location

B. Time of day and season

C. Solar radiation and
ionospheric disturbances

D. All of these choices are
correct

---------------------

G3C - Ionospheric layers;
critical angle and frequency; HF scatter; Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave

G3C01 (A)

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the
Earth?

A. The D layer

---------------------

G3C02 (A)

Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their
maximum height?

A. Where the Sun is overhead

---------------------

G3C03 (C)

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest
distance radio wave propagation?

C. Because it is the highest
ionospheric region

---------------------

G3C04 (D)

What does the term "critical angle" mean as used
in radio wave propagation?

D. The highest takeoff angle
that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric
conditions

---------------------

G3C05 (C)

Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter,
60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

C. The D layer absorbs signals
at these frequencies during daylight hours

---------------------

G3C06 (B)

What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

B. They have a wavering sound

---------------------

G3C07 (D)

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

D. Energy is scattered into
the skip zone through several different radio wave paths

---------------------

G3C08 (A)

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

A. Only a small part of the
signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

---------------------

G3C09 (B)

What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be
detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal
sky-wave propagation?

B. Scatter

---------------------

G3C10 (D)

Which of the following might be an indication that signals
heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?

D. The signal is heard on a
frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency

---------------------

G3C11 (B)

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective
for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?

B. A horizontal dipole placed
between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground

---------------------

G3C12 (D)

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip
signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?

D. The D layer

---------------------

G3C13 (B)

What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS)
propagation?

B. Short distance MF or HF
propagation using high elevation angles

---------------------

SUBELEMENT G4 - AMATEUR RADIO
PRACTICES [5 Exam Questions - 5 groups]

G4A – Station Operation and
set up

G4A01 (B)

What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found
on many HF transceivers?

B. To reduce interference from
carriers in the receiver passband

---------------------

G4A02 (C)

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or
"reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF
transceiver?

C. It may be possible to reduce
or eliminate interference from other signals

---------------------

G4A03 (C)

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in
"split" mode?

C. The transceiver is set to
different transmit and receive frequencies

---------------------

G4A04 (B)

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF
power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

B. A pronounced dip

---------------------

G4A05 (C)

What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with
an RF power amplifier?

C. To reduce distortion due to
excessive drive

---------------------

G4A06 (C)

What type of device is often used to match transmitter
output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

C. Antenna coupler or antenna
tuner

---------------------

G4A07 (D)

What condition can lead to permanent damage to a
solid-state RF power amplifier?

D. Excessive drive power

---------------------

G4A08 (D)

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling
control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

D. Maximum power output
without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

---------------------

G4A09 (C)

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter
keying circuit?

C. To allow time for
transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is
allowed

---------------------

G4A10 (B)

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

B. Automatic generation of
strings of dots and dashes for CW operation

---------------------

G4A11 (A)

Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on
a receiver?

A. To avoid interference from
stations very close to the receive frequency

---------------------

G4A12 (C)

Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO
feature on a transceiver?

C. To permit monitoring of two
different frequencies

---------------------

G4A13 (A)

What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is
present on many HF transceivers?

A. To reduce signal overload
due to strong incoming signals

---------------------

G4A14 (B)

What is likely to happen if a transceiver’s ALC system is
not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single
sideband mode?

B. Improper action of ALC
distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions

---------------------

G4A15 (D)

Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF
being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer
and a transceiver?

D. All of these choices are
correct

---------------------

G4B - Test and monitoring
equipment; two-tone test

G4B01 (D)

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and
vertical channel amplifiers?

D. An oscilloscope

---------------------

G4B02 (D)

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope
versus a digital voltmeter?

D. Complex waveforms can be
measured

---------------------

G4B03 (A)

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when
checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

A. An oscilloscope

---------------------

G4B04 (D)

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an
oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

D. The attenuated RF output of
the transmitter

---------------------

G4B05 (D)

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

D. It decreases the loading on
circuits being measured

---------------------

G4B06 (C)

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to
an analog voltmeter?

C. Better precision for most
uses

---------------------

G4B07 (B)

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

B. Two non-harmonically
related audio signals

---------------------

G4B08 (A)

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor
relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

A. A field strength meter

---------------------

G4B09 (B)

Which of the following can be determined with a field
strength meter?

B. The radiation pattern of an
antenna

---------------------

G4B10 (A)

Which of the following can be determined with a directional
wattmeter?

A. Standing wave ratio

---------------------

G4B11 (C)

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna
analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

C. Antenna and feed line

---------------------

G4B12 (B)

What problem can occur when making measurements on an
antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

B. Strong signals from nearby
transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements

---------------------

G4B13 (C)

What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring
the SWR of an antenna system?

C. Determining the impedance
of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable

---------------------

G4B14 (D)

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with
analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

D. When adjusting tuned
circuits

---------------------

G4B15 (A)

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test
analyze?

A. Linearity

---------------------

G4C - Interference with
consumer electronics; grounding; DSP

G4C01 (B)

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF
interference to audio frequency devices?

B. Bypass capacitor

---------------------

G4C02 (C)

Which of the following could be a cause of interference
covering a wide range of frequencies?

C. Arcing at a poor electrical
connection

---------------------

G4C03 (C)

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if
there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

C. Distorted speech

---------------------

G4C04 (A)

What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system
if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

A. On-and-off humming or
clicking

---------------------

G4C05 (D)

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when
touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the
equipment is connected to a ground rod?

D. The ground wire has high
impedance on that frequency

---------------------

G4C06 (C)

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

C. High RF voltages on the
enclosures of station equipment

---------------------

G4C07 (A)

What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF
energy in an amateur station?

A. Connect all equipment
grounds together

---------------------

G4C08 (A)

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused
by common-mode current on an audio cable?

A. Placing a ferrite choke
around the cable

---------------------

G4C09 (D)

How can a ground loop be avoided?

D. Connect all ground
conductors to a single point

---------------------

G4C10 (A)

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your
station?

A. You receive reports of
"hum" on your station's transmitted signal

---------------------

G4C11 (B)

Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?

B. To remove noise from
received signals

---------------------

G4C12 (A)

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF
filter as compared to an analog filter?

A. A wide range of filter
bandwidths and shapes can be created

---------------------

G4C13 (B)

Which of the following can perform automatic notching of
interfering carriers?

B. A Digital Signal Processor
(DSP) filter

---------------------

G4D - Speech processors; S
meters; sideband operation near band edges

G4D01 (A)

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a
modern transceiver?

A. Increase the
intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions

---------------------

G4D02 (B)

Which of the following describes how a speech processor
affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

B. It increases average power

---------------------

G4D03 (D)

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly
adjusted speech processor?

A. Distorted speech

B. Splatter

C. Excessive background pickup

D. All of these choices are
correct

---------------------

G4D04 (C)

What does an S meter measure?

C. Received signal strength

---------------------

G4D05 (D)

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one
that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

D. It is 100 times more
powerful

---------------------

G4D06 (A)

Where is an S meter found?

A. In a receiver

---------------------

G4D07 (C)

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised
to change the

S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

C. Approximately 4 times

---------------------

G4D08 (C)

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when
the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

C. 7.175 to 7.178 MHz

---------------------

G4D09 (B)

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with
the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

B. 14.347 to 14.350 MHz

---------------------

G4D10 (A)

How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General
Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz
wide LSB?

A. At least 3 kHz above the
edge of the segment

---------------------

G4D11 (B)

How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class
band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

B. At least 3 kHz below the
edge of the band

G4E - HF mobile radio
installations; emergency and battery powered operation

G4E01 (C)

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile
antenna?

C. To electrically lengthen a physically
short antenna

---------------------

G4E02 (D)

What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile
antenna?

D. To reduce high voltage
discharge from the tip of the antenna

---------------------

G4E03 (A)

Which of the following direct, fused power connections
would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

A. To the battery using heavy
gauge wire

---------------------

G4E04 (B)

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF
transceiver from a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

A. The socket is not wired
with an RF-shielded power cable

---------------------

G4E05 (C)

Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an
HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?

C. The antenna system

---------------------

G4E06 (C)

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile
antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?

C. Operating bandwidth may be
very limited

---------------------

G4E07 (D)

Which of the following may cause interference to be heard
in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?

A. The battery charging system

B. The fuel delivery system

C. The vehicle control
computer

D. All of these choices are
correct

---------------------

G4E08 (A)

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is
changed directly into electricity?

A. Photovoltaic conversion

---------------------

G4E09 (B)

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully
illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

B. 0.5 VDC

G4E10 (B)

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between
a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

B. The diode prevents
self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no
illumination

---------------------

G4E11 (C)

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as
the primary source of power for an emergency station?

C. A large energy storage
system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing

---------------------

SUBELEMENT G5 – ELECTRICAL
PRINCIPLES [3 Exam Questions – 3 Groups]

G5A - Reactance; inductance;
capacitance; impedance; impedance matching

G5A01 (C)

What is impedance?

C. The opposition to the flow
of current in an AC circuit

---------------------

G5A02 (B)

What is reactance?

B. Opposition to the flow of
alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

---------------------

G5A03 (D)

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of
alternating current in an inductor?

D. Reactance

---------------------

G5A04 (C)

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of
alternating current in a capacitor?

C. Reactance

---------------------

G5A05 (D)

How does an inductor react to AC?

D. As the frequency of the
applied AC increases, the reactance increases

---------------------

G5A06 (A)

How does a capacitor react to AC?

A. As the frequency of the
applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

---------------------

G5A07 (D)

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is
equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are
resistive?

D. The source can deliver
maximum power to the load

---------------------

G5A08 (A)

Why is impedance matching important?

A. So the source can deliver
maximum power to the load

---------------------

G5A09 (B)

What unit is used to measure reactance?

B. Ohm

---------------------

G5A10 (B)

What unit is used to measure impedance?

B. Ohm

---------------------

G5A11 (A)

Which of the following describes one method of impedance
matching between two AC circuits?

A. Insert an LC network
between the two circuits

---------------------

G5A12 (B)

What is one reason to use an impedance matching
transformer?

B. To maximize the transfer of
power

---------------------

G5A13 (D)

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance
matching at radio frequencies?

A. A transformer

B. A Pi-network

C. A length of transmission
line

D. All of these choices are
correct

---------------------

G5B - The Decibel; current and
voltage dividers; electrical power calculations; sine wave root-mean-square
(RMS) values; PEP calculations

G5B01 (B)

What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease
in power?

B. Approximately 3 dB

---------------------

G5B02 (C)

How does the total current relate to the individual
currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

C. It equals the sum of the
currents through each branch

---------------------

G5B03 (B)

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is
supplied to an 800 ohm load?

B. 200 watts

---------------------

G5B04 (A)

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC
light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

A. 2.4 watts

---------------------

G5B05 (A)

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0
milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?

A. Approximately 61 milliwatts

---------------------

G5B06 (B)

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an
oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load
connected to the transmitter output?

B. 100 watts

---------------------

G5B07 (C)

What value of an AC signal produces the same power
dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

C. The RMS value

---------------------

G5B09 (B)

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17
volts peak?

B. 12 volts

---------------------

G5B10 (C)

What percentage of power loss would result from a
transmission line loss of 1 dB?

C. 20.5 percent

---------------------

G5B11 (B)

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power
for an unmodulated carrier?

B. 1.00

---------------------

G5B12 (B)

What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load
dissipating 1200 watts?

B. 245 volts

---------------------

G5B13 (B)

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an
average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060
watts?

B. 1060 watts

---------------------

G5B14 (B)

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an
oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load
connected to the transmitter output?

B. 625 watts

G5C – Resistors, capacitors,
and inductors in series and parallel; transformers

G5C01 (C)

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary
winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its
primary winding?

C. Mutual inductance

---------------------

G5C02 (A)

What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary
windings of a 4:1 voltage step down transformer?

A. The secondary voltage
becomes 4 times the primary voltage

---------------------

G5C03 (B)

Which of the following components should be added to an
existing resistor to increase the resistance?

B. A resistor in series

---------------------

G5C04 (C)

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in
parallel?

C. 33.3 ohms

---------------------

G5C05 (C)

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms,
what is the value of each resistor?

C. 150 ohms

---------------------

G5C06 (C)

What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding
in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?

C. 26.7 volts

---------------------

G5C07 (A)

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an
audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm
impedance?

A. 12.2 to 1

---------------------

G5C08 (D)

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad
capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

D. 10.750 nanofarads

---------------------

G5C09 (C)

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors
connected in series?

C. 33.3 microfarads

---------------------

G5C10 (C)

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors
connected in parallel?

C. 3.3 millihenrys

---------------------

G5C11 (C)

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor
connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

C. 70 millihenrys

---------------------

G5C12 (B)

What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor
connected in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?

B. 14.3 microfarads

---------------------

G5C13 (C)

Which of the following components should be added to a
capacitor to increase the capacitance?

C. A capacitor in parallel

---------------------

G5C14 (D)

Which of the following components should be added to an
inductor to increase the inductance?

D. An inductor in series

---------------------

G5C15 (A)

What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a
50 ohm resistor connected in parallel?

A. 5.9 ohms

---------------------

G5C16 (B)

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage
step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary
winding?

B. To accommodate the higher
current of the primary

---------------------

G5C17 (C)

What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a
22,000 pF capacitor?

C. 22 nF

---------------------

G5C18 (D)

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700
nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

D. 4.7 µF

---------------------

SUBELEMENT G6 – CIRCUIT COMPONENTS
[2 Exam Questions – 2 Groups]

G6A – Resistors; Capacitors;
Inductors; Rectifiers; solid state diodes and transistors; vacuum tubes;
batteries

G6A01 (C)

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum
life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?

C. 10.5 volts

---------------------

G6A02 (B)

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of
nickel-cadmium batteries?

B. High discharge current

---------------------

G6A03 (B)

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a
germanium diode?

B. 0.3 volts

---------------------

G6A04 (D)

When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary
cell?

D. Never

---------------------

G6A05 (C)

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a
conventional silicon diode?

C. 0.7 volts

---------------------

G6A06 (A)

Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky
diode in an RF switching circuit rather than a standard silicon diode?

A. Lower capacitance

---------------------

G6A07 (A)

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar
transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

A. Its saturation and cutoff
regions

---------------------

G6A08 (D)

Why must the cases of some large power transistors be
insulated from ground?

D. To avoid shorting the
collector or drain voltage to ground

---------------------

G6A09 (B)

Which of the following describes the construction of a
MOSFET?

B. The gate is separated from
the channel with a thin insulating layer

---------------------

G6A10 (A)

Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate
the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

A. Control grid

---------------------

G6A11 (B)

Which of the following solid state devices is most like a
vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?

B. A field effect transistor

---------------------

G6A12 (A)

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum
tube?

A. To reduce grid-to-plate
capacitance

---------------------

G6A13 (D)

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for
polarized capacitors?

A. Incorrect polarity can
cause the capacitor to short-circuit

B. Reverse voltages can
destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor

C. The capacitor could
overheat and explode

D. All of these choices are
correct

---------------------

G6A14 (D)

Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic
capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?

D. Comparatively low cost

---------------------

G6A15(C)

Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic
capacitor?

C. High capacitance for a
given volume

---------------------

G6A16 (C)

What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a
resistor is increased?

C. It will change depending on
the resistor's temperature coefficient

---------------------

G6A17 (B)

Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound
resistors in an RF circuit?

B. The resistor's inductance
could make circuit performance unpredictable

---------------------

G6A18 (D)

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal
inductor?

A. Large values of inductance
may be obtained

B. The magnetic properties of
the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies

C. Most of the magnetic field
is contained in the core

D. All of these choices are
correct

---------------------

G6A19 (C)

How should the winding axes of two solenoid inductors be
oriented to minimize their mutual inductance?

C. At right angles to each
other

---------------------

G6B - Analog and digital
integrated circuits (ICs); microprocessors; memory; I/O devices; microwave ICs
(MMICs); display devices

G6B01 (D)

Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?

D. Linear voltage regulator

---------------------

G6B02 (B)

What is meant by the term MMIC?

B. Monolithic Microwave
Integrated Circuit

---------------------

G6B03 (A)

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated
circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

A. Low power consumption

---------------------

G6B04 (B)

What is meant by the term ROM?

B. Read Only Memory

---------------------

G6B05 (C)

What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?

C. The stored information is
maintained even if power is removed

---------------------

G6B06 (D)

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational
amplifier?

D. Analog

---------------------

G6B07 (D)

Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator
compared to an incandescent indicator?

A. Lower power consumption

B. Faster response time

C. Longer life

D. All of these choices are
correct

---------------------

G6B08 (D)

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

D. Forward Biased

---------------------

G6B09 (A)

Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid
crystal display?

A. It requires ambient or back
lighting

---------------------

G6B10 (A)

What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be
connected using a USB interface?

A. Computer and transceiver

---------------------

G6B11 (B)

What is a microprocessor?

B. A computer on a single
integrated circuit

---------------------

G6B12 (D)

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice
for a serial data port?

D. DE-9

---------------------

G6B13 (C)

Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF
connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

C. PL-259

---------------------

G6B14 (C)

Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio
signals in Amateur Radio stations?

C. RCA Phono

---------------------

G6B15 (B)

What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of
non-keyed types?

B. Reduced chance of incorrect
mating

---------------------

G6B16 (A)

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

A. A moisture-resistant RF
connector useful to 10 GHz

---------------------

G6B17 (C)

What is the general description of a DIN type connector?

C. A family of multiple
circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals

---------------------

G6B18 (B)

What is a type SMA connector?

B. A small threaded connector
suitable for signals up to several GHz

---------------------

G7 – PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [3
Exam Questions – 3 Groups]

G7A Power supplies; and
schematic symbols

G7A01 (B)

What useful feature does a power supply bleeder resistor provide?

B. It ensures that the filter
capacitors are discharged when power is removed

---------------------

G7A02 (D)

Which of the following components are used in a power
supply filter network?

D. Capacitors and inductors

---------------------

G7A03 (D)

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a
full-wave bridge power supply?

D. Equal to the normal peak
output voltage of the power supply

---------------------

G7A04 (D)

What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a
half-wave power supply?

D. Two times the normal peak
output voltage of the power supply

---------------------

G7A05 (B)

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a
half-wave rectifier?

B. 180 degrees

---------------------

G7A06 (D)

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a
full-wave rectifier?

D. 360 degrees

---------------------

G7A07 (A)

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave
rectifier connected to a resistive load?

A. A series of DC pulses at
twice the frequency of the AC input

---------------------

G7A08(C)

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode
power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

C. High frequency operation
allows the use of smaller components

---------------------

G7A09 (C)

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect
transistor?

C. Symbol 1

---------------------

G7A10 (D)

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

D. Symbol 5

---------------------

G7A11 (B)

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction
transistor?

B. Symbol 2

---------------------

G7A12 (C)

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding
transformer?

C. Symbol 6

---------------------

G7A13 (A)

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

A. Symbol 7

---------------------

G7B - Digital circuits;
amplifiers and oscillators

G7B01 (A)

Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what
type of integrated circuit?

A. Microcontroller

---------------------

G7B02 (A)

Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary
system when processing digital signals?

A. Binary "ones" and
"zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off"
state

---------------------

G7B03 (B)

Which of the following describes the function of a two
input AND gate?

B. Output is high only when
both inputs are high

---------------------

G7B04 (C)

Which of the following describes the function of a two
input NOR gate?

C. Output is low when either
or both inputs are high

---------------------

G7B05 (C)

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

C. 8

---------------------

G7B06 (A)

What is a shift register?

A. A clocked array of circuits
that passes data in steps along the array

---------------------

G7B07 (D)

What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

D. A filter and an amplifier
operating in a feedback loop

---------------------

G7B08 (B)

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

B. Divide the RF output power
by the DC input power

---------------------

G7B09 (C)

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

C. The inductance and
capacitance in the tank circuit

---------------------

G7B10 (D)

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A
amplifier?

D. Low distortion

---------------------

G7B11 (B)

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage
appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

C. AM

---------------------

G7B12 (D)

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest
efficiency?

D. Class C

---------------------

G7B13 (B)

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier
stage of a transmitter?

B. To eliminate
self-oscillations

---------------------

G7B14 (B)

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

B. An amplifier in which the
output preserves the input waveform

---------------------

G7C - Receivers and
transmitters; filters, oscillators

G7C01 (B)

Which of the following is used to process signals from the
balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone
transmitters?

B. Filter

---------------------

G7C02 (D)

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier
oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some
single sideband phone transmitters?

D. Balanced modulator

---------------------

G7C03 (C)

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF
amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a
superheterodyne receiver?

C. Mixer

---------------------

G7C04 (D)

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF
amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single
sideband receivers?

D. Product detector

---------------------

G7C05 (D)

Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver
controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

D. Variable frequency with the
stability of a crystal oscillator

---------------------

G7C06 (B)

What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as
compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

B. About the same

---------------------

G7C07 (C)

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a
superheterodyne receiver?

C. HF oscillator, mixer,
detector

---------------------

G7C08 (D)

What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to
convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?

D. Discriminator

---------------------

G7C09 (D)

Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal
Processor IF filter?

A. An analog to digital
converter

B. A digital to analog
converter

C. A digital processor chip

D. All of the these choices
are correct

---------------------

G7C10 (B)

How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?

B. By converting the signal
from analog to digital and using digital processing

---------------------

G7C11 (A)

What is meant by the term "software defined
radio" (SDR)?

A. A radio in which most major
signal processing functions are performed by software

---------------------

SUBELEMENT G8 – SIGNALS AND
EMISSIONS [3 Exam Questions – 3 Groups]

G8A - Carriers and modulation:
AM; FM; single sideband; modulation envelope; digital modulation;
overmodulation

G8A01 (B)

How is an FSK signal generated?

B. By changing an oscillator’s
frequency directly with a digital control signal

---------------------

G8A02 (B)

What is the name of the process that changes the phase
angle of an RF wave to convey information?

B. Phase modulation

---------------------

G8A03 (D)

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous
frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

D. Frequency modulation

---------------------

G8A04 (B)

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator
connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

B. Phase modulation

---------------------

G8A05 (D)

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power
level of the RF signal?

D. Amplitude modulation

---------------------

G8A06 (C)

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single
sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?

C. Available transmitter power
can be used more effectively

---------------------

G8A07 (A)

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest
bandwidth?

A. Single sideband

---------------------

G8A08 (D)

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

D. Excessive bandwidth

---------------------

G8A09 (B)

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting
on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

B. Transmit audio or
microphone gain

---------------------

G8A10 (C)

What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a
single sideband phone transmission?

C. Signal distortion caused by
excessive drive

---------------------

G8A11 (A)

What is the modulation
envelope of an AM signal?

A. The
waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

---------------------

G8B - Frequency mixing;
multiplication; bandwidths of various modes; deviation; duty cycle

G8B01 (A)

What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with
a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF)
signal?

A. Mixer

---------------------

G8B02 (B)

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz
received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what
type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

B. Image response

---------------------

G8B03 (A)

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

A. Heterodyning

---------------------

G8B04 (D)

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a
harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

D. Multiplier

---------------------

G8B05 (D)

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at
maximum data rate?

D. 2300 Hz

---------------------

G8B06 (D)

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission
having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

D. 16 kHz

---------------------

G8B07 (B)

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance
modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

B. 416.7 Hz

---------------------

G8B08 (B)

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you
are using when transmitting?

B. Some modes have high duty
cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.

---------------------

G8B09 (D)

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth
of the operating mode?

D. It results in the best
signal to noise ratio

---------------------

G8B10 (B)

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and
bandwidth?

B. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

---------------------

G8C – Digital emission modes

G8C01 (B)

Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate
at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?

B. JT9 and JT65

---------------------

G8C02(A)

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

A. The number varies

---------------------

G8C03 (C)

What part of a data packet contains the routing and
handling information?

C. Header

---------------------

G8C04 (C)

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

C. A 5-bit code with
additional start and stop bits

---------------------

G8C05 (A)

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to
a transmitted packet?

A. The receiver is requesting
the packet be retransmitted

---------------------

G8C06 (B)

What action results from a failure to exchange information
due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

B. The connection is dropped

---------------------

G8C07 (B)

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode
packet containing errors?

B. It requests the packet be
retransmitted

---------------------

G8C08 (B)

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

B. Upper case letters use
longer Varicode signals and thus slow down transmission

---------------------

G8C09 (A)

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

A. The approximate transmitted
symbol rate

---------------------

G8C10 (C)

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver
to correct errors in received data packets?

C. By transmitting redundant
information with the data

---------------------

G8C11 (D)

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift
Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

D. Mark and Space

---------------------

G8C12 (A)

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a
PSK31 signal?

A. Varicode

---------------------

SUBELEMENT G9 – ANTENNAS AND
FEED LINES [4 Exam Questions – 4 Groups]

G9A - Antenna feed lines:
characteristic impedance, and attenuation; SWR calculation, measurement and
effects; matching networks

G9A01 (A)

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic
impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

A. The distance between the
centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

---------------------

G9A02 (B)

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial
cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

B. 50 and 75 ohms

---------------------

G9A03 (D)

What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type
twinlead?

D. 300 ohms

---------------------

G9A04 (C)

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed
line connects to an antenna?

C. A difference between feed
line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

---------------------

G9A05 (B)

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the
frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

B. Attenuation increases

---------------------

G9A06 (D)

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

D. Decibels per 100 feet

---------------------

G9A07 (D)

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna
feed line?

D. The antenna feed point
impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

---------------------

G9A08 (B)

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a
matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1
SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

B. 5 to 1

---------------------

G9A09 (A)

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm
feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?

A. 4:1

---------------------

G9A10 (D)

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50
ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

D. 5:1

---------------------

G9A11 (B)

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50
ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

B. 1:1

---------------------

G9A12 (A)

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50
ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?

A. 2:1

---------------------

G9A13 (C)

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50
ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point
impedance?

C. 6:1

---------------------

G9A14 (B)

What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio
(SWR) and transmission line loss?

B. If a transmission line is
lossy, high SWR will increase the loss

---------------------

G9A15 (A)

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR
measured at the input to the line?

A.  The higher the
transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low

---------------------

G9B - Basic antennas

G9B01 (B)

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF
antenna?

B. You may experience RF burns
when touching metal objects in your station

---------------------

G9B02 (B)

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed
point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be
approximately 50 ohms?

B. Slope the radials downward

---------------------

G9B03 (B)

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane
antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?

B. It increases

---------------------

G9B04 (A)

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free
space in the plane of the conductor?

A. It is a figure-eight at
right angles to the antenna

---------------------

G9B05 (C)

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal)
radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

C. If the antenna is less than
1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

---------------------

G9B06 (C)

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical
antenna system be placed?

C. On the surface of the Earth
or buried a few inches below the ground

---------------------

G9B07 (B)

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole
antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

B. It steadily decreases

---------------------

G9B08 (A)

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole
change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

A. It steadily increases

---------------------

G9B09 (A)

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally
polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

A. Lower ground reflection
losses

---------------------

G9B10 (D)

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole
antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

D. 32 feet

---------------------

G9B11 (C)

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole
antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

C. 131 feet

---------------------

G9B12 (A)

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical
antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

A. 8 feet

---------------------

G9C - Directional antennas

G9C01 (A)

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a
Yagi antenna?

A. Larger diameter elements

---------------------

G9C02 (B)

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a
Yagi antenna?

B. 1/2 wavelength

---------------------

G9C03 (B)

Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi
antenna is true?

B. The director is normally
the shortest element

---------------------

G9C04 (A)

Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi
antenna is true?

A. The reflector is normally
the longest element

---------------------

G9C05 (A)

How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect
a Yagi antenna?

A. Gain increases

---------------------

G9C06 (D)

What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad
antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one
of the elements is used as a reflector?

D. The reflector element must
be approximately 5 percent longer than the driven element

---------------------

G9C07 (C)

What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference
to a Yagi antenna?

C. The power radiated in the
major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite
direction

---------------------

G9C08 (D)

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive
antenna?

D. The direction of maximum
radiated field strength from the antenna

---------------------

G9C09 (B)

How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized
Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the
gain of a single 3-element Yagi?

B. Approximately 3 dB higher

---------------------

G9C10 (D)

Which of the following is a Yagi antenna design variable
that could be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR
bandwidth?

A. The physical length of the
boom

B. The number of elements on
the boom

C. The spacing of each element
along the boom

D. All of these choices are
correct

---------------------

G9C11 (A)

What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi
antennas?

A. To match the relatively low
feed point impedance to 50 ohms

---------------------

G9C12 (A)

Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma
match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?

A. It does not require that
the elements be insulated from the boom

---------------------

G9C13 (A)

Approximately how long is each side of the driven element
of a quad antenna?

A. 1/4 wavelength

---------------------

G9C14 (B)

How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna
compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?

B. About the same

---------------------

G9C15 (B)

Approximately how long is each side of the reflector
element of a quad antenna?

B. Slightly more than 1/4
wavelength

---------------------

G9C16 (D)

How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare
to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?

D. About the same

---------------------

G9C17 (B)

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical
delta-loop antenna?

B. 1/3 wavelength

---------------------

G9C18 (A)

What happens when the feed point of a quad antenna of any
shape is moved from the midpoint of the top or bottom to the midpoint of either
side?

A. The polarization of the
radiated signal changes from horizontal to vertical

---------------------

G9C19 (B)

How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated
in dBd for the same antenna?

B. dBi gain figures are 2.15
dB higher than dBd gain figures

---------------------

G9C20 (A)

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to
antenna gain?

A. dBi refers to an isotropic
antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna

---------------------

G9D - Specialized antennas

G9D01 (D)

What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?

D. Near Vertical Incidence
sky-wave

---------------------

G9D02 (B)

Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?

B. High vertical angle
radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers

---------------------

G9D03 (D)

At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically
installed?

D. Between 1/10 and 1/4
wavelength

---------------------

G9D04 (A)

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

A. To permit multiband
operation

---------------------

G9D05 (D)

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally
polarized Yagi antennas?

D. It narrows the main lobe in
elevation

---------------------

G9D06 (A)

Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic
antenna?

A. Wide bandwidth

---------------------

G9D07 (A)

Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

A. Length and spacing of the
elements increase logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other

---------------------

G9D08 (B)

Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?

B. It has high losses compared
to other types of antennas

---------------------

G9D09 (B)

Which of the following is an application for a Beverage
antenna?

B. Directional receiving for
low HF bands

---------------------

G9D10 (D)

Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

D. A very long and low
directional receiving antenna

---------------------

G9D11 (D)

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband
antennas?

D. They have poor harmonic
rejection

---------------------

SUBELEMENT G0 – ELECTRICAL AND
RF SAFETY [2 Exam Questions – 2 Groups]

G0A - RF safety principles,
rules and guidelines; routine station evaluation

G0A01 (A)

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body
tissue?

A. It heats body tissue

---------------------

G0A02 (D)

Which of the following properties is important in
estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

A. Its duty cycle

B. Its frequency

C. Its power density

D. All of these choices are
correct

---------------------

G0A03 (D) [97.13(c)(1)]

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC
RF exposure regulations?

A. By calculation based on FCC
OET Bulletin 65

B. By calculation based on
computer modeling

C. By measurement of field
strength using calibrated equipment

D. All of these choices are
correct

---------------------

G0A04 (D)

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to
RF radiation exposure?

D. The total RF exposure
averaged over a certain time

---------------------

G0A05 (A)

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF
energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

A. Take action to prevent
human exposure to the excessive RF fields

---------------------

G0A06 (D)

What precaution should be taken when installing a
ground-mounted antenna?

D. It should be installed such
that it is protected against unauthorized access

---------------------

G0A07 (A)

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when
evaluating RF exposure?

A. A lower transmitter duty
cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

---------------------

G0A08 (C)

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take
to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds
levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

C. Perform a routine RF
exposure evaluation

---------------------

G0A09 (B)

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure
an RF field?

B. A calibrated field strength
meter with a calibrated antenna

---------------------

G0A10 (D)

What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that
a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the
main lobe of a directional antenna?

D. Take precautions to ensure
that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction

---------------------

G0A11 (C)

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor
transmitting antenna?

C. Make sure that MPE limits
are not exceeded in occupied areas

---------------------

G0A12 (B)

What precaution should you take whenever you make
adjustments or repairs to an antenna?

B. Turn off the transmitter
and disconnect the feed line

---------------------

G0B - Safety in the ham shack:
electrical shock and treatment, safety grounding, fusing, interlocks, wiring,
antenna and tower safety

G0B01 (A)

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should
be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC
single phase source?

A. Only the two wires carrying
voltage

---------------------

G0B02 (C)

What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a
circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?

C. AWG number 12

---------------------

G0B03 (D)

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate
to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

D. 15 amperes

---------------------

G0B04 (A)

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing
a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

A. Danger of carbon monoxide
poisoning

---------------------

G0B05 (B)

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault
Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a
device?

B. Current flowing from one or
more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground

---------------------

G0B06 (D)

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station
equipment be grounded?

D. It ensures that hazardous
voltages cannot appear on the chassis

---------------------

G0B07 (B)

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a
tower using a safety belt or harness?

B. Confirm that the belt is
rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service
life

---------------------

G0B08 (B)

What should be done by any person preparing to climb a
tower that supports electrically powered devices?

B. Make sure all circuits that
supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged

---------------------

G0B09 (D)

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that
connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

D. A soldered joint will
likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

---------------------

G0B10 (A)

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

A. Lead can contaminate food
if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

G0B11 (D)

Which of the following is good practice for lightning
protection grounds?

D. They must be bonded
together with all other grounds

---------------------

G0B12 (C)

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

C. To ensure that dangerous
voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened

---------------------

G0B13 (A)

What must you do when powering your house from an emergency
generator?

A. Disconnect the incoming
utility power feed

---------------------

G0B14 (C)

Which of the following is covered by the National
Electrical Code?

C. Electrical safety inside the
ham shack

---------------------

G0B15 (A)

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator
installation?

A. The generator should be
located in a well-ventilated area

---------------------

----End
of Pool Text----

2015-2019 General Class FCC Element 3 Question
Pool Diagram required for Examinations

Effective July 1, 2015

About the Author

Kent Hertz is an amateur radio
operator who focuses on emergency communications and preparedness.

Books by Kent Hertz

Amateur
Radio Service: Part 97

Personal
Radio Service: Part 95